[Free] MH-SET Life Science online mock Test 1

by Sachin Chavan · Published June 11, 2021 · Updated June 25, 2021

This Free MH-SET Life Science online mock Test has 50 questions each of 2 marks. This test will provide you with online real-time practice and will boost your confidence for the MH-SET Life Science exam.

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Created on June 10, 2021

MH-SET Life Science Test

This MH-SET Life Science Quiz has 50 questions !

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1 / 50

In fluorescence microscopy, the function of exciter filter is to remove all colours, but it allows only ……….to pass through.

A) Green colour

B) White colour

C) Yellow colour

D) Blue colour

2 / 50

Which animal of the following list is also called as white socks?

A) Rhinoceros

B) Slender Loris

C) Indian Gaur

D) Pangolin

3 / 50

Tautonyms are not accepted in …

A) Botanical nomenclature

B) Zoological nomenclature

C) Virus nomenclature

D) Bacteriological nomenclature

4 / 50

During the growth of animal cells in culture it is noticed that the cells do not look very healthy. After an investigation it was found that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture medium. What is possibly wrong with this culture?

A) The cells have too much oxygen

B) Ethyl alcohol is being produced m excess

C) Glycolysis is being investigated

D) The cells do not have enough oxygen

5 / 50

Staphylococcus aureus is one of the important food-borne pathogen responsible for food-poisoning
in India. Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding this pathogen?

A) S. aureus is Gram negative

B) Incubation time for staphylococcal food poisoning is very short because the organisms grow in food and produce heat stable enterotoxin in food

C) Incubation time for staphylococcal food poisoning is 3 to 4 days

D) Incubation time for staphylococcal food poisoning is 3 to 4 days

6 / 50

tRNA having an anticodon AAA will interact with one of the following amino acids during protein synthesis.

A) phenylalanine

B) Lysine

C) Glycine

D) Methionin

7 / 50

The green fluorescent protein reporter construct transfection can be used to monitor:

A) Cell size

B) Intracellular gene expression

C) DNA content

D) Cell granularity

8 / 50

Which of the following is used to remove excess metal ions from molasses for citric acid production by A. niger

A) Potassium ferrocyanate

B) Potassium permanganate

C) Potassium hydroxide

D) Calcium carbonate

9 / 50

Binding of epinephrine to a G protein-linked receptor causes adenyl cyclase to produce large amounts of:

A) Inositol triphosphate

B) cAMP

C) cGMP

D) G Protein

10 / 50

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the gene for a transporter protein, cystic fibrosis trans-membrane conductance regulator (CFTR). CFTR is union channel in the plasma membrane of epithelial cells. Which of the following channels does CFTR belong to?

A) Sodium channel

B) Potassium channel

C) Chloride channel

D) Acetylcholine receptor channel

11 / 50

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is not associated with:

A) Infectious Mononucleosis

B) Kaposis Sarcoma

C) Burkitt’s Lymphoma

D) N asopharyngeal carcinoma

12 / 50

The amount of energy that must be added to break a bond is exactly equal to the amount that is released upon formation of the bond. Which law of thermodynamics among the following is applicable to this situation?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

13 / 50

Free radical content in a sample can be detected using spectroscopic technique ….

A) ESR

B) NMR

C) Fluorescence

D) UV-visible absorption

14 / 50

One nanometer is equal to …

A) 0.1 μm

B) 0.01 μm

C) 0.001 μm

D) 0.0001 μm

15 / 50

In general which among the following most resistant to ionizations?

A) Thermo tolerant bacteria

B) Spore-forming bacteria

C) Viruses

D) Fungi

16 / 50

DNA methylation at CpG island can be detected by:

A) Regular sequencing

B) Bisulphite sequencing

C) Deep sequencing

D) Single nucleotide polymorphism study

17 / 50

High performance liquid chromatography achieves better purification because of:

A) High retention time

B) High volumetric phase ratio

C) Increased number of partition plates

D) High pressure

18 / 50

Among the following three forms of DNA, which one has deeper major groove?

A) A-Form

B) B-Form

C) Z-Form

D) Both A and Z forms

19 / 50

Somatic embryos obtained from cotyledonary explant of a diploid plant will be:

A) Diploid

B) Haploid

C) Triploid

D) Tetraploid

20 / 50

Which one of the following insects is used for the biological control of the weed Lantana camara?

A) Shoot fly

B) Aphid

C) Lantana bug

D) Lantana weevil

21 / 50

During conjugation, if the F factor attached to the bacterial genome, the donor is called as

A) F+

B) F++

C) Hfr

D) F+ super strain

22 / 50

cDNA is used to express mammalian proteins in bacteria rather than genomic DNA. Which one of the
following is the best explanation?

A) It is easier to done cDNA than genomic DNA of comparable size.

B) It is easier to clone RNA than DNA.

C) It is not possible to clone coding region of the gene.

D) Most eukaryotic genes have introns that cannot be removed in bacteria.

23 / 50

In the lakes the top consumer must be:

A) fishes that eat phytoplankton

B) fishes that consume detritus

C) fishes that are piscivore

D) fishes that eat zcoplankton

24 / 50

The DNA protein ratio in chromatin in general is:

A) 3:1

B) 2: 1

C) 1: 2

D) 4: 1

25 / 50

Half-life of radioactive I131 is 8 days. If you have 200 micromoles of this isotope at one instant, how many micromoles will remain at the end of thirty two days?

A) 12.5

B) 25

C) 50

D) 100

26 / 50

The following are some of the characteristic features of enzyme inhibitors. Which of the following
are true with respect to competitive inhibitors?

Select the correct answer from the options given below
it:

(i) Competitive inhibition can be overcome by a sufficiently high concentration of substrate.

(ii) A competitive inhibitor diminishes the rate of
catalysis by reducing the proportion of enzyme molecules bound to a substrate.

(iii) The competitive inhibitor binds only to the enzyme substrate complex.

(iv) Competitive inhibitor can be used as drugs.

A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

B) (i), (ii), (iii)

C) (ii), (iii), (iv)

D) (i), (ii), (iv)

27 / 50

Rapid amplification of cDNA ends (RACE) is used :

A) to obtain full length sequence of a transcript

B) to detect a gene

C) to detect protein DNA interaction

D) to measure protein RNA Interaction

28 / 50

The genome of which of the following virus obeys Chargaff’s rule?

A) TMV

B) Mu phage

C) φ x 174

D) Adenovirus

29 / 50

Maple syrup disease is caused due to defect in:

A) the degradation of Tyrosine

B) urea synthesis

C) formation of Tyrosine

D) the degradation of branched chain amino acids

30 / 50

The disappearance of tradition division of flowering plants into monocots and dicots is the major outcome of……….. system of classification.

A) Bentham and Hooker’s

B) APG

C) Engler and Prantl’s

D) Armen Takhtajan’s

31 / 50

The limiting factor for productivity in an aquatic ecosystem is:

A) Temperature

B) Wind

C) Light

D) Water mass movement

32 / 50

What is the purpose of the fluidics system of a flow cytometer?

A) To serve as a buffer for cell maintenance.

B) To dilute the concentration for the sample.

C) To deliver sample appropriately to the interrogation point for the measurement.

D) To provide a cushion to prevent cell death following excitation.

33 / 50

A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered …

A) Dormant

B) Virulent

C) Attenuated

D) Denatured

34 / 50

The neuromasts present in the lateral line organ of fish serve as:

A) chemoreceptor

B) rheoreceptor

C) gustoreceptor

D) alfactoreceptor

35 / 50

The percentage of human peripheral blood T cells bearing a gamma delta T cell receptor is …

A) 30-80%

B) 1-5%

C) 100%

D) 0%

36 / 50

Linnaeus gave a system of nomenclature called as …

A) Binomial

B) Bimodal

C) Biphasic

D) Binary

37 / 50

Cell proliferation is generally measured by:

A) Thymidine uptake assay

B) Chemotaxis assay

C) ELISA

D) Chromium release assay

38 / 50

Hallmark of Apoptosis is:

A) DNA synthesis.

B) Nuclear fragmentation

C) Nuclear division

D) Fat deposition

39 / 50

In plants and some microorganisms, a metabolic pathway is operated that allows the conversion of acetyl CoA generated from fat stores into glucose.
This of the following is … that pathway.

A) Citric acid cycle

B) β oxidation

C) Glyoxylate cycle

D) Urea cycle

40 / 50

Most commonly used radioisotopes in biology emits …

A) α rays

B) β rays

C) gamma-rays

D) Positrons

41 / 50

In family Rutaceae, fruits are mainly:

A) Schizocarp

B) Capsule

C) Hesperidium

D) Syngamy

42 / 50

Thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts are rich in …

A) gangliosides and cerebrosides

B) sphingolipids and galactolipids

C) sulfolipids and sphingolipids

D) galactolipids and sulfolipid

43 / 50

Which of the following types of protein could be coded by a tumour-suppressor gene?

A) A protein that forms part of a growth factor signalling pathway

B) A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme.

C) A protein that helps prevent apoptosis

D) A protein that controls progression through the cell cycle.

44 / 50

Which one of the following group of fishes is considered to be “living fossil”?

A) Holocephal

B) Coelocanths

C) Elasmobranch

D) Dipnoi

45 / 50

In mature coconuts the liquid endosperm becomes milky and …

A) it does not contain free nuclei or cells

B) it contains free nuclei only

C) it contains cells only

D) it contains free nuclei or cells.

46 / 50

Far-UV CD spectra of proteins give information on:

A) Primary structure

B) Secondary structure

C) Tertiary structure

D) Quaternary structure

47 / 50

The main difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is:

A) in active transport the molecules move from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration without spending energy.

B) in diffusion the molecules move from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration without spending energy.

C) in active transport energy is consumed to move molecules against a concentration gradient.

D) although a carrier molecule may not be needed in active transport, diffusion cannot take place without a carrier molecule.

48 / 50

The main principle behind Sanger’s method of DNA sequencing.

A) use of reverse transcriptase enzyme.

B) use of thymidine dimers

C) use of di-deoxy nucleotide analogues.

D) use of ATP

49 / 50

Dam methylase show strand discrimination by:

A) Methylation of Cytosine

B) Methylation of Thymine

C) Methylation of Guanine

D) Methylation of Adenine

50 / 50

A virus that kills its host is said to be:

A) Lysogenic

B) Temperate

C) Lytic

D) Lytic or Lysogenic but not Temperate

Your score is

The average score is 45%

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This is it for today!!! If you think this MH-SET Life Science online mock Test has helped you or you have any suggestions or requirements related to biology questions, then do comment below. Prepare smart and hard for the exam make your family and yourself proud, because NO ONE GONE DO IT FOR YOU !!! See you in the next article.

If you want important notes and updates about exams on your mobile then you can join SACHIN’S BIOLOGY on Instagram or Facebook and can directly talk to the founder of Sachin’s Biology and Author of biologywala.com Mr Sachin Chavan M.Sc. NET JRF (AIR 21) GATE, MH-SET!

[Free] MH-SET Life Science online mock Test 1

Before you start:

Now let’s SET Mock Test 2021 start the Test :

You will like:

What is MH-SET 2021 ?

Karnataka SET Quiz 1

Karnataka SET Quiz 2

Ecology Test 1

Biochemistry Test 1

Plant Physiology Test 1

Molecular Biology Test 1

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